The expenditure multiplier is the number that tells you how much total aggregate demand changes when any component of spending (C, I, G, or net exports) changes by $1. It equals 1/(1-MPC), or equivalently 1/MPS, so an MPC of 0.8 gives a multiplier of 5.
The expenditure multiplier quantifies the ripple effect of spending in an economy. When someone injects $1 of new autonomous spending (say, the government buys $1 of construction), that dollar becomes someone's income. That person spends part of it (their marginal propensity to consume), which becomes someone else's income, who spends part of that, and so on. Each round is smaller because some money leaks into saving, but the rounds add up to a total change in output that's bigger than the original $1. Per EK MOD-2.B.1 and MOD-2.B.2, a $1 change to autonomous expenditures leads to further changes in total expenditures, and the expenditure multiplier measures the full size of that change in aggregate demand.
The formula is multiplier = 1/(1-MPC) = 1/MPS. The size of the multiplier depends entirely on the MPC (EK MOD-2.B.4). A higher MPC means people re-spend more of each dollar, so the ripples are bigger and the multiplier is larger. A higher MPS (more saving) means more leakage each round and a smaller multiplier. The same multiplier applies to a change in any component of aggregate demand, whether it's government spending, investment, consumption, or net exports.
This term lives in Topic 3.2 (Spending and Tax Multipliers) in Unit 3: National Income and Price Determination, and it's the workhorse behind learning objectives 3.2.A (define it), 3.2.B (explain how spending changes move real GDP), and 3.2.C (calculate those changes). It's also the math engine behind fiscal policy later in Unit 3. Any time you're asked how much government spending is needed to close a recessionary gap, you're really being asked to use the expenditure multiplier. If you can't compute 1/(1-MPC) quickly and apply it, a whole family of Unit 3 questions becomes guesswork.
Keep studying AP® Macroeconomics Unit 3
Tax Multiplier (Unit 3)
The tax multiplier is the expenditure multiplier's smaller sibling. It equals -MPC/(1-MPC) and is always smaller in absolute value because a tax cut doesn't all get spent. Part of that first dollar leaks straight into saving, while a dollar of government spending hits the economy in full on round one.
Marginal Propensity to Save (Unit 3)
The multiplier and the MPS are mirror images. Since the multiplier equals 1/MPS, saving is the leak that shrinks each spending round. If the MPS is 0.25, the multiplier is 4. Know one and you instantly know the other.
Autonomous Expenditures (Unit 3)
The multiplier only applies to autonomous (initial, income-independent) changes in spending. That first injection is the pebble; the multiplier measures the size of the splash plus all the ripples that follow.
Government Spending and Fiscal Policy (Unit 3)
Fiscal policy questions later in Unit 3 are multiplier problems in disguise. To close a $100 billion output gap with a multiplier of 5, the government only needs to spend $20 billion. The multiplier is why a small policy change can move real GDP a lot.
Multiplier questions are mostly calculation MCQs and short FRQ parts. A classic stem gives you an MPC and a spending change, like an MPC of 0.8 and a $50 billion increase in government spending, and asks for the total change in aggregate demand (multiplier of 5, so $250 billion). Other MCQs flip it conceptually, asking what makes the multiplier smaller (a lower MPC or extra leakages like imports) or why the tax multiplier is always smaller in absolute value than the expenditure multiplier. On FRQs, you'll typically calculate the spending change needed to close a specific output gap, and showing your work means writing the formula 1/(1-MPC) and the multiplication, not just the final number. No released FRQ has to use the exact phrase 'expenditure multiplier' for this skill to show up; any fiscal policy question with a dollar amount and an output gap is testing it.
Both come from Topic 3.2 and both depend on MPC, but they're not interchangeable. The expenditure multiplier, 1/(1-MPC), applies when spending itself changes, so the full first dollar enters the economy. The tax multiplier, -MPC/(1-MPC), applies when taxes change, and it's smaller in absolute value because households save part of any tax cut before spending begins. With an MPC of 0.8, the expenditure multiplier is 5 but the tax multiplier is only -4. Also note the sign. A tax increase lowers AD, which is why the tax multiplier is negative.
The expenditure multiplier equals 1/(1-MPC), which is the same as 1/MPS, and it tells you the total change in aggregate demand from a $1 change in any spending component.
A higher MPC means a bigger multiplier because people re-spend more of each new dollar of income, while more saving (a higher MPS) shrinks the multiplier.
The total change in real GDP equals the initial change in autonomous spending times the multiplier, so a $50 billion spending increase with an MPC of 0.8 raises AD by $250 billion.
The expenditure multiplier is always larger in absolute value than the tax multiplier because spending changes hit the economy in full on the first round, while part of a tax change is saved first.
Extra leakages, like spending on imports in an open economy, make the multiplier smaller than the simple 1/MPS formula predicts.
It's the number that measures how much total aggregate demand changes when a component of spending changes by $1. The formula is 1/(1-MPC) or 1/MPS, so an MPC of 0.75 gives a multiplier of 4.
No. The expenditure multiplier is 1/(1-MPC) and applies to spending changes, while the tax multiplier is -MPC/(1-MPC) and applies to tax changes. The tax multiplier is always smaller in absolute value because part of any tax cut is saved before it gets spent.
No. Per the CED (EK MOD-2.B.2), it applies to a change in any component of aggregate demand, including consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports. A $40 billion jump in consumption gets multiplied the same way a $40 billion jump in G does.
Divide 1 by (1 - MPC). With an MPC of 0.8, that's 1/0.2 = 5, so a $50 billion spending increase ultimately raises aggregate demand by $250 billion.
Any extra leakage beyond saving shrinks it. In an open economy, some new income is spent on imports instead of domestic goods, and taxes also pull money out of each spending round, so the real-world multiplier ends up below 1/MPS.
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