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The time value of money (TVM) is the foundational principle behind virtually everything in corporate finance: valuing stocks and bonds, making capital budgeting decisions, and structuring loan payments. When you're tested on TVM, you're really being tested on your ability to translate cash flows across time, recognizing that a dollar today isn't worth the same as a dollar tomorrow.
Don't just memorize these formulas. Understand what problem each one solves and when to apply it. Exam questions rarely ask you to simply plug numbers into an equation. They present scenarios where you must first identify which formula applies, then execute the calculation. Master the logic of discounting (moving future values backward), compounding (moving present values forward), and annuitizing (handling streams of payments), and you can tackle any TVM problem thrown at you.
These formulas handle the simplest TVM scenario: one lump sum moving through time. Compounding grows value forward; discounting shrinks value backward. Master these first since they're the building blocks for everything else.
This calculates what a future lump sum is worth today at discount rate over periods. Discounting reverses the effect of compound interest, answering: "What would I pay now for money I'll receive later?"
This projects what today's money grows to after compounding periods at rate . Compounding captures the snowball effect: you earn interest on your interest each period.
PV vs. FV are inverse operations using the same variables. PV divides by the growth factor; FV multiplies by it. If an exam gives you three of the four variables (, , , ), you can always solve for the fourth by rearranging.
Annuities involve equal payments at regular intervals: loan payments, lease payments, retirement withdrawals. The formulas below aggregate multiple cash flows into a single value using a shortcut rather than discounting each payment individually.
This finds today's value of equal payments of discounted at rate . The piece is called the annuity discount factor. It represents the sum of all individual discount factors collapsed into one expression.
This calculates what a stream of equal deposits grows to at the end of periods. Compounding stacks each payment at a different horizon: the first payment compounds times, the second times, and the last payment doesn't compound at all.
PVA vs. FVA both handle annuities, but PVA discounts payments back to today while FVA compounds them forward to a future date. If the question asks "how much do you need today," use PVA. If it asks "how much will you have at the end," use FVA.
This values an infinite stream of equal payments. It's the simplest TVM formula. It works because as , the term in the PVA formula, and the annuity discount factor simplifies to just .
PVA vs. Perpetuity: a perpetuity is just an annuity where . If payments eventually stop, use PVA. If they continue indefinitely, use the perpetuity shortcut. Watch for "in perpetuity" or "forever" as keywords in exam questions.
Nominal rates can be misleading when compounding frequency varies. These formulas let you compare apples to apples by converting everything to a true annual yield.
This converts a nominal (stated) annual rate compounded times per year into its true annual equivalent. More frequent compounding produces a higher EAR because interest-on-interest accumulates faster within the year.
APR (Annual Percentage Rate) is the nominal rate lenders are required to quote. It simply divides the periodic rate by the number of periods, ignoring intra-year compounding. EAR captures that compounding and shows you the true cost.
For example, a 12% APR compounded monthly means a monthly rate of . The EAR is:
You're actually paying 12.68%, not 12%. Exams love testing whether students recognize this distinction.
These formulas evaluate whether an investment creates value. They combine discounting with decision rules to answer: "Is this worth doing?"
This calculates the smoothed annual return that would produce the observed growth over years. CAGR ignores volatility along the way, so it's useful for comparing investments with different holding periods on an equal footing.
NPV sums all discounted future cash flows () and subtracts the initial investment ().
IRR is the discount rate that makes . You typically solve for it iteratively or with a financial calculator since there's no clean algebraic solution.
NPV vs. IRR both evaluate project profitability, but NPV gives a dollar value while IRR gives a percentage return. When they conflict on project rankings, trust NPV because it directly measures wealth creation. Exam free-response questions often ask you to explain when and why these two metrics can disagree.
| Concept | Best Formula(s) |
|---|---|
| Single lump sum valuation | PV, FV |
| Stream of equal payments | PVA, FVA, Perpetuity |
| Infinite cash flows | Perpetuity |
| True annual yield | EAR |
| Historical performance | CAGR |
| Project accept/reject decisions | NPV, IRR |
| Comparing investments with different compounding | EAR |
| Capital budgeting gold standard | NPV |
You're offered five years from now or a lump sum today. Which formula determines the minimum you'd accept today, and what variables do you need?
What mathematical relationship connects PVA and the perpetuity formula? Under what condition does PVA simplify to the perpetuity formula?
A bank offers 6% APR compounded monthly; another offers 6.1% compounded annually. Which gives the higher effective return, and how do you prove it?
An investment has a positive NPV but an IRR below the company's cost of capital. Is this possible? Explain what might cause this apparent contradiction.
You're saving /month for 30 years at 7% annual return. Which formula calculates your ending balance, and why would using the PVA formula give you a meaningless answer here?